Passage
Is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also of the Gentiles? yes, of the Gentiles also.
Is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also of the Gentiles? yes, of the Gentiles also.
Romans 3:27 Where is then thy boasting? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith.
Romans 3:28 For we account a man to be justified by faith, without the works of the law.
Romans 3:29 Is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also of the Gentiles? yes, of the Gentiles also.
Romans 3:30 For it is one God that justifieth circumcision by faith and uncircumcision through faith.
Romans 3:31 Do we then, destroy the law through faith? God forbid! But we establish the law.
The verse centers on "jews", "only", and "gentiles". It is saying that the verse draws attention to "jews" and "only", so its meaning should be read from those terms before moving to application.
The nearby context moves from verse 28's "For we account a man to be..." into verse 30's "For it is one God that justifieth...", so "jews" and "only" belong inside that flow. In Romans context, the local focus is righteousness by faith, union with Christ, life in the Spirit, and God's covenant faithfulness.
A plain takeaway is to answer the verse's own emphasis on "jews" and "only" with trust shaped by these words, not by a vague optimism outside the passage.