Passage
Jesus answered them, `Is it not having been written in your law: I said, ye are gods?
Jesus answered them, `Is it not having been written in your law: I said, ye are gods?
John 10:32 Jesus answered them, `Many good works did I shew you from my Father; because of which work of them do ye stone me?'
John 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, `For a good work we do not stone thee, but for evil speaking, and because thou, being a man, dost make thyself God.'
John 10:34 Jesus answered them, `Is it not having been written in your law: I said, ye are gods?
John 10:35 if them he did call gods unto whom the word of God came, (and the Writing is not able to be broken,)
John 10:36 of him whom the Father did sanctify, and send to the world, do ye say--Thou speakest evil, because I said, Son of God I am?
The verse centers on "jesus", "answered", "having", "been", "written", "said", and "gods". It is saying that the verse draws attention to "jesus" and "answered", so its meaning should be read from those terms before moving to application.
The nearby context moves from verse 33's "The Jews answered him saying For a..." into verse 35's "if them he did call gods unto...", so "jesus" and "answered" belong inside that flow. In John context, the local focus is the identity of Jesus, new birth, eternal life, and belief and unbelief.
A plain takeaway is to answer the verse's own emphasis on "jesus" and "answered" with trust shaped by these words, not by a vague optimism outside the passage.